Isaiah 13 says that the city of Babylon will never be inhabited again after Cyrus conquered it. It says no Arab will pitch their tent there.
Do you consider Alexander’s venture there in 331 B.C. as inhabiting the city? Perhaps not to the extent of it’s old self, but no criteria was specified. Even when Alex went there he was met by Mazaeus who apparently had taken refuge in the city.
http://www.livius.org/aj-al/alexander/alexander_t44.html
Saddam Hussein tried to rebuild it. Yes, he never completed it, but isn’t Saddam Arabian? Did he not inhabit that land in order to build it. His forces were Arabian of course; I mean… at least ONE right?
So an Arab pitches a tent. But at the same time, were the Arabs within the city walls with their tents?
Why am I (the person risking my chance at eternal life) having to figure out what god is saying is the standard?
Ok. So let’s say that everything works in the bibles favor here.
No Arab actually set up station within the city.
And that Alexander’s stay and Mazaeus’s stay are discounted because they didn’t inhabit it to the level it was inhabited before.
How hard is it to predict that a city in the middle of a dessert will not be inhabited ever again to the extent that it was before. When Cyrus redirected the Euphrates river he essentially nuked the place. When you nuke a place it’s not easily inhabited, so your bets are safe for a few thousand years. Due to it’s likely hood of not being inhabited, someone could have just said god is behind this phenomenon. It’s not everyday people think about the likeliness of a place being inhabited; they see the superficial fact that it isn’t and move on with that.
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